I act as guarantor on a mortgage on a spanish property owned by a spanish limited company. I have a guarantor agreement with Barclays bank (based on UK not Spanish law) who provided the loan.
The mortgage is interest only and based on libor rate.
Barclays have admitted manipulation of the libor rate and would have been aware of this at the time both the mortgage was arranged and the guarantor agreement was signed. I have adivsed Barclays that I am no longer prepared to act as guarantor to the loan since it is my view that the mortgage agreement is void. Would appreciate your views please.
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